Ezekiel is thus reminded of his humanity, at the time when he is especially permitted to have contact with God. Similarly, at his trial when presented in the robe and crown of thorns meant to humiliate him, Pilate said, "See! Post-canonical Literature: Book of Enoch II. Biblical Hermeneutics Stack Exchange works best with JavaScript enabled Anybody can answer (b) Meaning, man who is but earth and ashes, which was to humble him, and cause him to consider his own state, and God's grace.And he said to me, Son of man, stand on your feet, and I will speak to you. In Ezekiel, “son of man” means “human being.” It’s a poetic Hebrew expression that’s used with that same meaning in several other places in the Old Testament, for example, in Psalm 8, where the ESV translates the Hebrew terms literally: “What is man that you are mindful of him, and the son of man that you care for him?” They will follow my laws and be careful to keep my decrees,"...Curious because texts such as Nehemiah 8 speak of the priests God frequently addresses his prophet not by his name but as"Son of Man" This emphasizes that the prophet is an earthling, flesh, as a human spokesman in contrast to the origin of the source, which is God. So listen to what I say, then warn them for me. site design / logo © 2020 Stack Exchange Inc; user contributions licensed under Then said he to me, Son of man, have you seen what the ancients of the house of Israel do in the dark, every man in the chambers of his imagery? That title, as applied to Messiah, implies at once His lowliness and His exaltation, in His manifestations as the Representative man, at His first and second comings respectively (Ps 8:4-8; Mt 16:13; 20:18; and on the other hand, Da 7:13, 14; Mt 26:64; Joh 5:27).Ezekielâs commission, son of man; as he was to be that spake unto him; and so it may denote relation, affection, and familiarity; or otherwise it is expressive of humiliation; of the frail, mean, and low estate of man, through the fall, stand upon thy feet; for he was fallen upon his face, at the sight of the vision, and I will speak unto thee; which is said for his encouragement, being spoken by him who has the words of truth and grace, and of eternal life. In Ezekiel the phrase is used to refer to the person of Ezekiel; in Daniel 7 it most likely refers to a heavenly figure. If He spoke in Greek it would be son of ἄνθρωπος (Okay, but is there any difference in the meaning of the two? Use in the New Testament: Self-Designation of Jesus 2. This is apparent from the contexts. This is the clearest reference to Christ's 2nd coming in the Old Testament.Son of enosh is used in only 1 other place in the Bible, Ps 144:3, where it just means a human being.Thanks for contributing an answer to Biblical Hermeneutics Stack Exchange! Ezekiel 3 New English Translation (NET Bible). This article is about general religious issues. The Man!" As Ozzie pointed out, Daniel is also called a son of man (Adam). So when God calls Ezekiel "son of man," it is a way of saying he is completely a man, a mere human creature in contrast to the Creator. It is used in three main ways: as a form of address (Ezekiel); to contrast the lowly status of humanity against the permanence and exalted dignity of God and the angels (Numbers 23:19, Psalm 8:4); and as a future eschatological figure whose coming will signal the end of history and the time of God's judgement (Daniel 7:13-14). Ezekiel 31:14. They have been disposed of their land and exiled to Babylon, the general location of the Garden of Eden. This implies that He would die. Later in chapter 7 it is explained that "one like a man" certainly implicates a "human being" and also stands for "the saints of the Most High" (7:18, 21-22) and "the people of the saints of the Most High" (7:27).Countering Rashi is the suggestion that Daniel 7:13 "like a son of man" probably did not stand for the The New Testament features the indefinite "a son of man" in The exact translation of "son of man" varies —depending on the source used. Discuss the workings and policies of this site For example the first use in Ezekiel is at 2:1: And he said to me, “Son of man, stand on your feet, and I will speak with you.” (Ezekiel 2:1) [ESV] וַיֹּאמֶר אֵלָי בֶּן־אָדָם עֲמֹד עַל־רַגְלֶיךָ וַאֲדַבֵּר אֹתָֽךְ׃ 3 And he said to me, “Son of man, I send you to the people of Israel, to nations of rebels, who have rebelled against me. JPS Tanakh 1917 Then said He unto me: 'Son of man, dig now in the wall'; and when I had digged in the wall, behold a door. Daniel is also referred to as "Son of Man" Daniel 8:17.Jesus’ application of this expression to himself (Mat.8:20, 10:23, Hebrews 2:6) shows beyond any doubt that God’s Son was now really a human, having "become flesh’"(John 1:14), born of a woman through his conception and birth to the Jewish virgin Mary. Jamieson-Fausset-Brown Bible Commentary. Thus the two prophets are addressed as sons of adam, the first man.Son of man (Adam) is the Biblical way of saying a human being. Questions as to Meaning I. Then he said to me, "Son of man, dig now in the wall": and when I had dug in the wall, look, a door. They have been disposed of their land and exiled to Babylon, the general location of the Garden of Eden. This is especially curious considering this passage:Ezekiel 37:24. But the spirit who sanctioned the words of the prophet implied by it the lowliness and frailty of the prophet as man "lower than the angels," though now admitted to the vision of angels and of God Himself, "lest he should be exalted through the abundance of the revelations" (2Co 12:7). If you refuse, you are responsible for their death. In the prayer in which this thought is expressed, "man" is used in distinction to the "people of Israel"; indeed, "children of men" appears to mark a contrast to "children of Israel" in the Song of Moses (Deut. It only takes a minute to sign up.If the Daniel 7 reference to "Son of Man" is in any way Messianic, why would this distinction be given to the prophet Ezekiel, a descendant of Aaron, if the king was to be of Judah?
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